ASCP-MLT 無料問題集「ASCP MEDICAL LABORATORY TECHNICIAN - MLT(ASCP)」

Leptin signals the hypothalamus that there are changes in fat stores.
Resistin increases insulin resistance and enhances adhesion molecules present on endothelial cells.
IL-6 responds to tissue injury. IL-6 increases insulin resistance by inhibiting insulin receptor signal transduction in liver cells. It also increases other inflammatory cytokines, interleukin-1 (IL-1) and TNF-a, and stimulates the liver to produce C-reactive protein (CRP).
Adipose tissue and liver cells produce angiotensinogen, a precursor of angiotensin II. Besides increasing blood pressure, angiotensin II may stimulate adipose cell formation and thus increase adipose mass.
Which one of the following adipocyte products is an important messenger in metabolism, signaling the hypothalamus that there are changes in fat stores?

Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus that produces a strong toxin. C difficile is a common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis.
Microbiology
A recto-sigmoidoscopy revealed pseudomembranes in a patient with severe diarrhea following prolonged treatment with ampicillin. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to be isolated?

India ink can aid in the visualization of the polysacchride capsules of yeast such as Cryptococcus neoformans.
Micro
India Ink is used to:

Serum ferritin is a good indicator of iron deficiency. However, it acts like an acute phase reactant, being elevated in a large number of conditions. Patients who have iron deficiency as well as another condition that elevates serum ferritin levels may therefore have normal or even elevated serum ferritin levels.
Which one of the following statements about serum ferritin are true:

The creatinine clearance for this patient is 100 mL/min.
Creatinine clearance values are calculated using the following equation:
Creatinine Clearance (mL / min) = (Urine Creatinine / Serum Creatinine) x Urine Volume (mL) / [ time (hr) x
60 ]
For this patient Creatinine clearance (mL/min)= (120/1.5) x (1800 / [24 x 60])
80 x 1800/1440, which is 80 x 1.25, or 100 mL/min
A 45-year-old male of average height and weight had a serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL and urine creatinine was
120 mg/dL; the total volume of urine collected over a 24-hour period was 1,800 mL. Calculate the creatinine clearance for this patient in mL/min.

The renal threshold is the maximum amount of a substance that the kidney can prevent from entering into the urine.
UA & body fluids
The renal threshold is best described as:

To obtain a serum sample for a stat test on a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy, the recommended tube is:
Question options:

Match each of the following definitions associated with heart disease and heart failure to the term that it defines.
1. Congestive heart failure
2. Infarction
3. Ischemia
4. Angina

正解:A、B、C、D 解答を投票する
Enterobius vermicularis infection occurs through swallowing ova. Pinworm infections including those caused by Enterobius vermicularis, usually occur due to a fecal-oral route of transmission. According to the CDC,
"Eggs are deposited on perianal folds. Self-infection occurs by transferring infective eggs to the mouth with hands that have scratched the perianal area. Person-to-person transmission can also occur through handling of contaminated clothes or bed linens. Enterobiasis may also be acquired through surfaces in the environment that are contaminated with pinworm eggs (e.g. , curtains, carpeting). Some small number of eggs may become airborne and inhaled. These would be swallowed and follow the same development as ingested eggs.
Following ingestion of infective eggs, the larvae hatch in the small intestine and the adults establish themselves in the colon. The time interval from ingestion of infective eggs to oviposition by the adult females is about one month. The life span of the adults is about two months. Gravid females migrate nocturnally outside the anus and oviposit while crawling on the skin of the perianal area. The larvae contained inside the eggs develop (the eggs become infective) in 4 to 6 hours under optimal conditions . Retroinfection, or the migration of newly hatched larvae from the anal skin back into the rectum, may occur but the frequency with which this happens is unknown." Enterobius vermicularis infection occurs through:

Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins, or TSI's, are IgG antibodies that can bind to thyrotropin (TSH) receptors on the thyroid gland. TSIs mimic the action of TSH, causing excess secretion of thyroxine and triiodothyronine. The TSI level is abnormally high in persons with hyperthyroidism due to Graves' disease.
Which of the following is an autoantibody that binds to TSH receptor sites on thyroid cell membranes preventing thyroid-stimulating hormone binding?

Provide the equivalent measurement for one pint.

The lactophenol blue mount reveals tiny, ovoid microconidia, arranged in a daisy-head pattern at the tip of a straight conidiophore. This appearance is characteristic of the mold form of Sporothrix schenckii. By moving the focus up and down in a microscopic preparation, delicate hair-like attachments may be observed for each conidium.
The mold form of Coccidioides immitis produces delicate hyphae that break up into arthroconidia separated by empty cells, giving an alternatively staining appearance.
The mold form of Blastomyces dermatitidis is characterized by the production of single, smooth microconidia, each borne on a single, thin conidiophore ("lollipops").
The mold form of Histoplasma capsulatum is recognized by the production of large, echinulate macroconidia, appearing as a prickly surface.
The ovoid microconidia arranged in a daisy-head pattern at the tip of a a straight conidiophore, observed in the photomicrograph on the right, is characteristic of which of the following dimorphic molds?

The normal pH of blood is 7.40. In order for most metabolic processes to take place, the pH must remain within a narrow range close to this value. The range is usually defined in adults as 7.35-7.45. If blood pH falls below 7.35, the blood becomes too acidic (acidosis). If blood rises above 7.45, the blood is too alkaline (alkalosis).
As blood pH decreases, the kidneys will retain bicarbonate (HCO3-) from the glomerular filtrate; therefore, bicarbonate is increased. However, in this case, the increased HCO3- could not compensate for the markedly elevated pCO2 (the respiratory component) and the condition that results is uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
What condition is indicated by the following blood gas results: Bicarbonate = 32 mmol/L (Normal = 22 - 26 mmol/L); pCO2 = 65 mm Hg (Normal = 35 - 45 mmHg); pH = 7.28 (normal = 7.35 - 7.45)

Listeria monocytogenes is the correct answer. The motility agar is showing motility at the top of the tube, but not deeper; typical of this catalase-positive, gram positive bacillus. Streptococcus agalactiae would be catalase negative and a coccus. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae would be H2S-positive and catalase negative. Escherichia coli is a gram negative bacillus.

This Gram-positive bacillus grew as a diffusely beta-hemolytic colony from a newborn. It was catalase positive and had tumbling motility on a hanging drop preparation. This is how it appeared on triple sugar iron agar and motility medium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gating sets up boundaries around a subset of data points to segregate those events for analysis.
Gating the proper cell population is crucial for flow cytometric analysis. The CD marker information presented on the histogram data is only representative of the cells inside the gate.
When analyzing the raw data of a sample on the flow cytometer, CD marker information on the histograms represents data inside the _____ population.

A blood culture to evaluate septicemia is performed in:

A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicates the presence of a non-glucose reducing sugar such as galactose, fructose, glyceraldehyde, etc. This is the reason that certain patient populations require additional confirmatory sugar testing on their urine samples.
A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicates:

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