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CTPRP問題集で2025年最新のShared Assessments CTPRP試験問題
質問 # 24
Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?
- A. Software as a Service
- B. Platform as a Service
- C. Infrastructure as a Service
- D. Function a3 a Service
正解：A
解説：
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to software applications over the internet, without requiring them to install, maintain, or update the software on their own devices. SaaS is primarily focused on the application layer, as it delivers the complete functionality of the software to the end users, while abstracting away the underlying infrastructure, platform, and middleware layers. SaaS providers are responsible for managing the servers, databases, networks, security, and scalability of the software, as well as ensuring its availability, performance, and compliance. SaaS users only pay for the software usage, usually on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, and can access the software from any device and location, as long as they have an internet connection. Some examples of SaaS applications are Gmail, Salesforce, Dropbox, and Netflix. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 15, section 2.2.2
* Cloud Computing Deployment Models and Architectures, section on Cloud Computing Models
* Layered Architecture of Cloud, section on Application Layer
質問 # 25
Which feature of a risk register allows for effective prioritization of third-party risks?
- A. The inclusion of historical data for all associated risks.
- B. Its ability to assign risk ratings and ownership.
- C. The listing of all potential future risks without prioritization.
- D. Its capacity to link risks directly to business outcomes.
正解：B
解説：
The ability of a risk register to assign risk ratings and ownership is vital for prioritizing risks effectively. This feature ensures that risks are not only recognized but also actively managed according to their severity and impact on the organization.
質問 # 26
What is the primary purpose of analyzing responses from a vendor questionnaire?
- A. To compare the vendor's performance against industry benchmarks
- B. To assess the vendor's alignment with the organization's strategic objectives
- C. To identify any gaps, issues, or risks that may pose a threat to the organization or its customers
- D. To finalize the contract terms and conditions with the vendor
正解：C
解説：
The primary purpose of analyzing responses from a vendor questionnaire is to identify any potential gaps, issues, or risks that could threaten the organization or its customers. This analysis helps in understanding vulnerabilities and areas needing attention to ensure vendor alignment with the organization's safety and compliance standards.
質問 # 27
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the accountabilities in a three lines of defense model?
- A. The second line of defense is management within the business unit
- B. The third line of defense must be limited to an external assessment firm
- C. The third line of defense is an assurance function that has independence from the business unit
- D. The first line of defense is the risk or compliance team that provides an oversight or governance function
正解：C
解説：
The three lines of defense model is a way of explaining the relationship between functions and roles of risk management and control in an organization. It involves the first line of defense (owning and managing risks), the second line of defense (overseeing or specialising in risk), and the third line of defense (providing independent assurance)1. The third line of defense is typically the internal audit function, which provides objective and independent assurance to the governing body, management, regulators, and external auditors that the control culture across the organization is effective in its design and operation2. The third line of defense must have independence from the business unit, meaning that it is not involved in the execution of business activities or the design and implementation of controls, and that it reports to the highest level of governance, such as the board or the audit committee3. The third line of defense is not limited to an external assessment firm, although external assurance providers may complement or supplement the work of the internal audit function2. References:
* 1: Internal audit: three lines of defence model explained | ICAS
* 2: Modernizing The Three Lines of Defense Model | Deloitte US
* 3: THE IIA S THREE LINES MODEL
質問 # 28
For services with system-to-system access, which change management requirement MOST effectively reduces the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer?
- A. Communicating the change to customers prior ta deployment to enable external acceptance testing
- B. Documenting sufficient time for quality assurance testing
- C. Documenting and legging change approvals
- D. Approval of the change by the information security department
正解：B
解説：
For services with system-to-system access, ensuring sufficient time for quality assurance (QA) testing before implementing changes is crucial to reducing the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer. This requirement ensures that any modifications to the system are thoroughly vetted for potential issues that could impact the outsourcer's operations. QA testing allows for the identification and remediation of bugs, compatibility issues, and other potential problems that could lead to operational disruptions or security vulnerabilities. By allocating adequate time for QA testing, organizations can ensure that changes are fully functional and secure, thereby maintaining the integrity and availability of services provided to the outsourcer. This practice is aligned with industry standards for change management, which advocate for comprehensive testing and validation processes to ensure the reliability and stability of system changes.
References:
* Industry standards such as ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) emphasize the importance of thorough testing and validation within the change management process to minimize the risk of disruptions and ensure the smooth operation of services.
* Guides like "Managing Change in IT Outsourcing Arrangements: The TPRM Perspective" provide insights into best practices for change management in third-party relationships, including the critical role
* of QA testing in mitigating risks associated with system changes.
質問 # 29
What is the main purpose of a risk register in third-party risk management?
- A. To ensure all third-party interactions are legally compliant and auditable.
- B. To monitor the financial transactions between the organization and third parties.
- C. To provide a training tool for new managers on handling third-party engagements.
- D. To document, monitor, manage, and report on third-party risks comprehensively.
正解：D
解説：
The risk register is a fundamental tool in third-party risk management because it serves to document, monitor, manage, and communicate about third-party risks effectively. This comprehensive approach helps organizations maintain oversight and control over external threats and vulnerabilities.
質問 # 30
During a contract review, a manager notices that the remediation actions for security breaches are not specified. What should be the manager's immediate action?
- A. Wait until a breach occurs to determine if remediation steps are necessary.
- B. Recommend amendments to explicitly include remediation actions and penalties.
- C. Consult with other managers to decide if remediation actions need to be defined.
- D. Assess whether the existing clauses are sufficient without remediation specifics.
正解：B
解説：
If a contract lacks specific clauses on remediation actions for security breaches, the immediate action should be to recommend amendments to include these details explicitly. This ensures that both parties are clear on the steps to be taken post-incident and the penalties for non-compliance, which is crucial for effective risk management and recovery.
質問 # 31
Risk transfer in third-party risk management often involves _____________ to ensure both parties agree on responsibility allocation.
- A. Engaging in detailed contractual negotiations
- B. Using risk avoidance strategies by stopping certain activities
- C. Creating internal policies and training programs
- D. Signing mutual non-disclosure agreements
正解：A
解説：
Contractual negotiations are essential in risk transfer to define the responsibilities and liabilities of both parties involved, ensuring that the risk burden is clearly assigned and understood.
質問 # 32
Which cloud service model primarily allocates security control responsibilities to the cloud provider?
- A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- B. Hybrid cloud model
- C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- D. Software as a Service (SaaS)
正解：D
解説：
In the Software as a Service model, the cloud provider is typically responsible for the majority of security controls, which is why recognizing this model is essential for correctly delegating security responsibilities.
質問 # 33
In a company where the third line of defense is reviewing compliance practices, what is their main objective?
- A. Implementing new technologies to enhance security measures
- B. Ensuring that all employees are trained on risk protocols
- C. Monitoring the adherence to international standards
- D. Evaluating the effectiveness of risk management and control systems
正解：D
解説：
The main goal of this function is to verify and ensure that all risk management processes are working effectively and that the organization's control culture is robust, assisting in safeguarding the organization's operations and reputation.
質問 # 34
Which of the following is NOT a direct component of controls evaluation but rather pertains to contract management?
- A. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit
- B. Enforcing the terms of service and conditions
- C. Establishing performance measurement criteria
- D. Managing dispute resolution processes
正解：A
解説：
The correct answer focuses on a component of contract management, distinct from controls evaluation. This negotiation ensures that the organization can audit the third party to ensure adherence to the contract and applicable regulations.
質問 # 35
The following statements reflect user obligations defined in end-user device policies EXCEPT:
- A. A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device
- B. A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts alt offboarding
- C. A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device
- D. A statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems
正解：D
解説：
End-user device policies are policies that establish the rules and requirements for the use and management of devices that access organizational data, networks, and systems. These policies typically include user obligations that define the responsibilities and expectations of the users regarding the security, privacy, and compliance of the devices they use. According to the web search results from the search_web tool, some common user obligations defined in end-user device policies are:
* A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device: This statement clarifies who owns the data stored on the device, whether it is the organization, the user, or a third party. This statement also defines the rights and obligations of the data owner and the data custodian, such as the access, retention, disposal, and protection of the data123.
* A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts at offboarding: This statement outlines the steps and procedures that the user must follow to securely erase or transfer all organizational data, settings, and accounts from the device when they leave the
* organization or change their role. This statement also specifies the roles and responsibilities of the user, the organization, and the device manager in ensuring the proper offboarding of the device143.
* A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device: This statement describes the actions and measures that the user must take to protect the device from unauthorized access, theft, loss, damage, or compromise. This statement may include requirements such as enabling encryption, password, firewall, antivirus, updates, and backups, as well as reporting any incidents or issues related to the device1435.
However, option D, a statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems, is not a user obligation defined in end-user device policies. Rather, this statement is a feature or functionality that may be enabled or disabled by the organization or the device manager, depending on the security and compliance needs of the organization. This statement may also be part of a device configuration policy or a mobile device management policy, which are different from end-user device policies. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a user obligation defined in end-user device policies. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
* 1: End-User Device Policy | IT Services - University of Chicago
* 4: Device compliance policies in Microsoft Intune | Microsoft Learn
* 2: Basics of an End User Computing Policy - Apparity Blog
* 3: End-User Device Management Standard Operating Procedure
* 5: End-User Devices | Information Security - University of Chicago
質問 # 36
What is the primary goal of requiring employees and contractors to return company assets upon termination?
- A. To maintain the security, integrity, and availability of data and assets
- B. To evaluate the productivity and efficiency of asset usage
- C. To assess the overall value and condition of returned assets
- D. To facilitate updates to the organization's asset management system
正解：A
解説：
The primary goal of requiring the return of company assets upon termination is to maintain the security, integrity, and availability of data and assets. This policy is crucial to ensure that no unauthorized use or compromise of company assets occurs after an individual's association with the company ends.
質問 # 37
What is the primary purpose of implementing additional authentication factors in restrictive areas?
- A. To comply with international data protection regulations by limiting physical entry.
- B. To simplify the monitoring process by reducing the number of access points.
- C. To increase the operational efficiency by automating the entry and exit processes.
- D. To enhance security by reducing the risk of unauthorized access or credential theft.
正解：D
解説：
Additional authentication factors are essential in restrictive areas to prevent unauthorized access by ensuring that only authorized individuals with verified credentials can enter, thereby significantly reducing the likelihood of security breaches.
質問 # 38
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of application security testing?
- A. Static testing
- B. Interactive testing
- C. Dynamic testing
- D. Cookie consent scanning
正解：D
解説：
Application security testing (AST) is a process of finding and eliminating vulnerabilities in software applications. There are different types of AST tools that can help with this process, such as static, dynamic, and interactive testing. Static testing analyzes the source code of the application without executing it, dynamic testing simulates attacks on the running application from the outside, and interactive testing combines both static and dynamic analysis to find more vulnerabilities and provide more context. Cookie consent scanning is not a type of AST, but rather a tool that checks if a website complies with the cookie consent regulations, such as the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA).
Cookie consent scanning does not test the security of the application, but rather the privacy and compliance of the website. References:
* 1: 10 Types of Application Security Testing Tools: When and How to Use Them
* 2: 5 Types of Application Security Testing You Must Know About
* 3: Types of Application Security Testing: Definitions and Differences
* 4: What is Application Security? | VMware Glossary
質問 # 39
What should data privacy policies explicitly outline regarding personal data?
- A. The number of users that can access the data simultaneously.
- B. Specific software tools used for data processing.
- C. Time frame in which data must be analyzed after collection.
- D. The purpose, scope, and legal basis of data collection and processing.
正解：D
解説：
Data privacy policies are essential for defining the purpose, scope, and legal basis for data collection and processing. This clarity helps ensure compliance with relevant laws and regulations, guiding how personal information is handled within the organization.
質問 # 40
Which activity reflects the concept of vendor management?
- A. Managing service level agreements
- B. Reviewing and analyzing external audit reports
- C. Scanning and collecting information from third party web sites
- D. Receiving and analyzing a vendor's response to & questionnaire
正解：A
解説：
Vendor management is the process of coordinating with vendors to ensure excellent service to your customers12. It involves activities such as selecting vendors, negotiating contracts, controlling costs, reducing vendor-related risks and ensuring service delivery12. One of the key activities of vendor management is managing service level agreements (SLAs), which are contracts that define the expectations and obligations of both parties regarding the quality, quantity, and timeliness of the goods or services provided3. SLAs help to monitor and measure vendor performance, identify and resolve issues, and enforce penalties or rewards based on the agreed-upon metrics3. The other options are not correct because they do not reflect the concept of vendor management as a whole, but rather specific aspects or tools of vendor management. Scanning and collecting information from third party web sites, reviewing and analyzing external audit reports, and receiving and analyzing a vendor's response to a questionnaire are all examples of methods or sources of information that can be used to conduct vendor due diligence, risk assessment, or performance evaluation, but they are not the only or the most important activities of vendor management. References:
* What is Vendor Management? Definition, Process, and Tools
* What is vendor management? | Definition & Process | Taulia
* Essential Guide to Vendor Management | Smartsheet, section "Service Level Agreements"
質問 # 41
You are updating the inventory of regulations that impact your TPRM program during the company's annual risk assessment. Which statement provides the optimal approach to prioritizing the regulations?
- A. Narrow the focus only on the regulations that directly apply to personal information
- B. Emphasize the federal regulations since they supersede state regulations
- C. identify the applicable regulations that require an extension of specific obligations to service providers
- D. Include the regulations that have the greater risk of triggering enforcement or fines/penalties
正解：C
解説：
Third-party risk management (TPRM) is the process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks associated with outsourcing business activities or functions to external entities. TPRM is influenced by various regulations that aim to protect the interests of customers, stakeholders, and regulators from the potential harm caused by third-party failures or misconduct. These regulations may vary depending on the industry, jurisdiction, and nature of the third-party relationship. Therefore, it is important for organizations to update their inventory of regulations that impact their TPRM program during their annual risk assessment, and prioritize the regulations that are most relevant and critical for their business objectives and risk appetite.
The optimal approach to prioritizing the regulations is to identify the applicable regulations that require an extension of specific obligations to service providers. This means that the organization should focus on the regulations that impose certain requirements or expectations on the organization and its third-party partners, such as data protection, security, compliance, reporting, auditing, or performance standards. These regulations may also specify the roles and responsibilities of the organization and the service provider, the scope and frequency of due diligence and monitoring activities, the contractual clauses and terms, and the remediation and termination procedures. By identifying these regulations, the organization can ensure that its TPRM program is aligned with the regulatory expectations and obligations, and that it can effectively manage and mitigate the risks associated with its third-party relationships.
Some examples of regulations that require an extension of specific obligations to service providers are:
* The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR): This is a European Union regulation that governs the collection, processing, and transfer of personal data of individuals in the EU. The GDPR requires organizations to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to protect the personal data, and to only engage with service providers that can provide sufficient guarantees of data protection.
The GDPR also requires organizations to enter into written contracts with their service providers that specify the subject matter, duration, nature, and purpose of the data processing, as well as the rights and obligations of both parties. The GDPR also imposes strict notification and reporting requirements in case of data breaches or violations.
* The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA): This is a US federal law that regulates the privacy and security of health information of individuals. The HIPAA requires covered entities, such as health care providers, health plans, and health care clearinghouses, to safeguard the health information of their patients, and to only disclose or share it with authorized parties. The HIPAA also requires covered entities to enter into business associate agreements with their service providers that handle or access the health information on their behalf. These agreements must specify the permitted and required uses and disclosures of the health information, the safeguards and measures to protect the health information, and the reporting and notification obligations in case of breaches or incidents.
* The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX): This is a US federal law that aims to improve the accuracy and reliability of corporate financial reporting and disclosure. The SOX requires public companies to establish and maintain internal controls over their financial reporting processes, and to assess and report on the effectiveness of these controls. The SOX also requires public companies to ensure that their external auditors are independent and qualified, and to disclose any material weaknesses or deficiencies in their internal controls. The SOX also applies to the service providers that perform or support the financial reporting functions of the public companies, such as accounting firms, information technology vendors, or consultants. The SOX requires public companies to evaluate and monitor the internal controls of their service providers, and to include them in their scope of audit and reporting.
References:
* Third-Party Risk Management and Mitigation | Gartner
* Best Practices to Jumpstart Third-Party Risk Management Program
* Third-party risk management best practices and why they matter
* GDPR and Third-Party Risk Management
* HIPAA Compliance for Business Associates and Third-Party Service Providers
* SOX Compliance Requirements for Third-Party Service Providers
質問 # 42
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